Hello Ronny and Anthony!
I was doing the practice exam and while I understand the question/answer, it got my noggin joggin about how NAT64 really works.
The question said, putting it simply, that you work at a company which uses only IPv6 and you acquire a company that uses only IPv4. How do you connect these networks with minimal configuration?
If you were in the IPv6 network and you wanted to ping the host: 10.10.10.10 in the IPv4 network, as I understand it, sending it to [prefix]::A:A:A:A and the router configured to do NAT64 would translate it and send it along. However, if you were in the IPv4 network, I don't understand what your destination address would be when you try to originate traffic destined for the IPv6 network.
Although now that I'm writing this out and trying to find the answer more online, I read this quote from wikipedia: "In general, NAT64 is designed to be used when the communication is initiated by IPv6 hosts. Some mechanisms, including static address mapping, exist to allow the inverse scenario"
Can you help me confirm this is the correct understanding and if so, how would this solution be workable for a company? Would you have to configure many static NAT entries and a bunch of "fake" subnets that the router would then translate to IPv6? Then set those all up in DNS? If the company running IPv6 is very large, this seems like it could be more work than setting up IPv6 on the newly acquired network.